Breakdown of Nihil nos impediet quominus postero die ad fanum redeamus, si via tuta erit.
Questions & Answers about Nihil nos impediet quominus postero die ad fanum redeamus, si via tuta erit.
Why is nos in the accusative?
Because impediet is a transitive verb here: nihil nos impediet = nothing will hinder us.
So:
- nihil = the subject, nothing
- nos = the direct object, us
- impediet = will hinder / will prevent
English often says prevent us from..., and Latin expresses that with impedire + object + quominus clause.
Why does Latin use quominus here?
After verbs of hindering, preventing, or delaying, Latin very often uses quominus + subjunctive.
So:
- impedire = to hinder / prevent
- quominus redeamus = from returning / that we should not return
In smoother English, the whole structure means:
- nihil nos impediet quominus redeamus
= nothing will prevent us from returning
A learner may expect an infinitive, but Latin normally prefers this clause after verbs like impedio.
Why is redeamus subjunctive?
It is subjunctive because it is inside the quominus clause.
After impedire and similar verbs, Latin uses:
- quominus
- subjunctive
So redeamus is not an independent statement like we are returning. It is part of the idea prevent us from returning.
Here redeamus is present subjunctive, active, first person plural, from redeo, redire.
Why is it redeamus and not a future form, since the main verb is future?
Because after quominus, Latin uses the subjunctive, and the tense of the subjunctive does not work exactly like English future wording.
Here the present subjunctive is normal after a future main verb:
- nihil nos impediet quominus redeamus
= nothing will prevent us from returning
The future sense comes mainly from the main verb impediet and from the context, not from making redeamus itself future.
What case is postero die, and what does it mean literally?
Postero die is ablative of time when.
- postero = on the following / next
- die = day
So literally it means:
- on the following day
- or more naturally, the next day
Latin often uses the ablative without a preposition to express when something happens.
Why is it ad fanum?
Because ad with the accusative shows motion toward a place.
- ad = to, toward
- fanum = accusative singular
- ad fanum = to the shrine/temple
Since redeamus means let us go back / return, Latin marks the destination with ad.
What exactly does fanum mean? Is it the same as templum?
Fanum means a sanctuary, shrine, holy place, or temple. It is a religious place, but not always exactly the same in nuance as templum.
Very roughly:
- fanum emphasizes a sacred precinct or shrine
- templum can mean a temple, and originally also a space marked out for religious observation
In many basic translations, fanum can simply be rendered temple or shrine.
Why does the sentence say si via tuta erit and not si via tuta est?
Because this is a future more vivid condition:
- si via tuta erit = if the road is safe
- nihil nos impediet = nothing will prevent us
Both verbs are future:
- erit = will be
- impediet = will hinder
Latin often uses future + future where English may still translate naturally with a present in the if clause:
- Latin: si via tuta erit
- English: if the road is safe
So the Latin is more explicitly future than the English.
What is the basic structure of the whole sentence?
The sentence breaks down like this:
- Nihil = subject
- nos impediet = main verb + direct object
- quominus ... redeamus = clause depending on impediet
- postero die = time expression
- ad fanum = motion toward a place
- si via tuta erit = condition
So the structure is:
- Nothing will prevent us
- from returning to the shrine on the next day
- if the road is safe
Seeing the sentence in chunks often makes it much easier to read.
Could nihil be translated as nothing or in no way?
Here nihil is best taken as the neuter pronoun meaning nothing.
So:
- nihil nos impediet = nothing will hinder us
It is functioning as the subject of the verb. Although nihil can sometimes be used adverbially in other contexts, here it is clearly the subject.
Is quominus ever written as two words?
Yes. You may see both:
- quominus
- quo minus
They are the same expression historically and function the same way in this kind of sentence. Many texts and dictionaries treat the one-word form as standard, but learners should recognize both.
So if you see:
- impedit quo minus veniat
that is the same basic construction as:
- impedit quominus veniat
Why doesn’t Latin use ut non after impediet?
Because with verbs of hindering/preventing, Latin usually prefers quominus or sometimes ne, rather than ut non.
So after impedio, detineo, prohibeo, and similar verbs, the expected construction is often:
- quominus
- subjunctive
That is why quominus redeamus sounds natural in Latin.
For a learner, it is best to memorize this as a standard pattern:
- aliquem impedire quominus + subjunctive
= to prevent someone from ...
What principal parts does redeamus come from?
It comes from redeo, redire, redii (or redivi), reditum: to go back, return.
Here:
- re- = back
- eo = I go
So redeamus literally means may we go back or let us return, but in this sentence it is simply part of the dependent clause after quominus: from returning.
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