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Mercator occupatus in taberna manet, sed servus vinum ad villam portat.

Mercator occupatus in taberna manet, sed servus vinum ad villam portat.
The busy merchant stays in the shop, but the servant carries wine to the villa.
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Questions & Answers about Mercator occupatus in taberna manet, sed servus vinum ad villam portat.

Which words are the subjects of the two clauses?
  • In the first clause, mercator (the merchant) is the subject; it’s nominative singular.
  • In the second clause, servus (the slave/servant) is the subject; also nominative singular.
    Each clause has its own subject and verb.
What is occupatus doing here—why isn’t it a separate verb?

Occupatus is a perfect passive participle meaning having been occupied / busy. It functions like an adjective describing mercator, so Latin can say mercator occupatus = the busy merchant (literally the merchant, occupied).
The main verb of that clause is manet.

How do I know occupatus agrees with mercator?

Because participles (like adjectives) must match the noun they describe in case, number, and gender:

  • mercator = nominative singular masculine
  • occupatus = nominative singular masculine
    So they clearly pair up.
Why is it in taberna and not in tabernam?

Because in changes meaning depending on the case:

  • in + ablative = location (in / in(side) / at) → in tabernā
  • in + accusative = motion into (into) → in tabernam
    Here it’s describing where he stays, so it uses the ablative.
What case is taberna, and what does that ending tell me?
Tabernā is ablative singular (1st declension). The long -ā ending is a common marker of ablative singular in 1st-declension nouns. It fits with in meaning location.
Why does Latin use ad villam for direction, not in villam?

Ad + accusative means to / toward / up to a place: ad villam = to the house/estate.
In + accusative would mean into the place (emphasizing entering it). Latin chooses between them depending on the nuance.

What case is villam, and why?
Villam is accusative singular, required by ad. Many prepositions “govern” (require) a particular case; ad takes the accusative.
Why is vinum in the accusative?
Because vinum is the direct object of portat (carries). Direct objects are typically in the accusative case, and vinum (2nd declension neuter) has the same form in nominative and accusative, so you identify it by its role in the sentence.
How can I tell that vinum is not the subject, since it looks like it could be nominative?

You use the structure:

  • servus is clearly nominative and a typical animate subject.
  • portat is 3rd person singular, matching servus.
  • After a transitive verb like portat, a thing like vinum naturally fits as the object.
    So even though vinum’s form is ambiguous (neuter nominative/accusative), the syntax makes its function clear.
What tense are manet and portat, and how are they formed?

Both are present tense, 3rd person singular:

  • manet = he/she/it stays (2nd conjugation: manēre, present ending -t)
  • portat = he/she/it carries (1st conjugation: portāre, present ending -t)
    The -t ending is the key marker for “he/she/it” in the present tense.
What does sed do, and why is there a comma?

Sed means but and introduces a contrasting clause. The comma reflects that you have two independent clauses:

  • Mercator … manet
  • servus … portat
    Latin often uses conjunctions like sed to show the relationship, and punctuation helps readability.
Does Latin word order matter here, or could it be rearranged?

Latin word order is flexible because case endings carry the grammar, but the given order is very natural:

  • Subject first (mercator, servus)
  • Key descriptor near its noun (mercator occupatus)
  • Prepositional phrase near the verb (in taberna manet, ad villam portat)
    You could rearrange words, but Latin uses word order to emphasize: placing a word earlier can give it more focus.