Questions & Answers about مربی به من گفت که غذاهای مفید بخورم.
Why does the Farsi sentence use bokhoram (I eat) instead of the infinitive for 'to eat'?
In English, we report commands using an infinitive ('told me to eat'). In Farsi, you use ke (that) plus the present subjunctive. You are literally saying 'The coach told me that I eat beneficial foods.' This is why khordan (to eat) becomes bokhoram (present subjunctive, 'I eat').
How do I know which person to conjugate the subjunctive verb for?
The subjunctive verb must match the person who is supposed to do the action. Here, the coach is giving the command to me, so I am the one who has to eat. Therefore, the verb is conjugated for 'I': bokhoram. If the coach had told him to eat, it would be bokhorad.
Why is it be man goft rather than just man goft for 'told me'?
The verb goftan (to say/tell) always requires the preposition be (to) to indicate the listener. You cannot directly attach an object like in English ('told me'); you always have to say 'said to me' (be man goft).
Can we leave out the word ke in this sentence?
Yes, just like the word 'that' in English, the conjunction ke is often dropped in everyday spoken Farsi. You will frequently hear people say morabbi be man goft ghazâ-hâ-ye mofid bokhoram without changing the meaning at all.
Why is there a 'ye' sound connecting the words in ?