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Si compro unas zapatillas nuevas, ataré mejor los cordones porque los de estas están viejos.

Si compro unas zapatillas nuevas, ataré mejor los cordones porque los de estas están viejos.
If I buy new trainers, I’ll tie the laces better because the ones on these are old.
FromLesson 47inHardcore Spanish (Spain)

Questions & Answers about Si compro unas zapatillas nuevas, ataré mejor los cordones porque los de estas están viejos.

Why is it si compro and not si compraré?

Because in Spanish, a real or possible future condition normally uses si + present indicative:

  • Si compro... = If I buy...

Spanish does not usually use the future tense after si in this kind of sentence. The future appears in the main clause instead:

  • Si compro unas zapatillas nuevas, ataré...

This is the standard pattern for a likely future situation.

Why is ataré in the future tense?

Because the result happens after the condition. The structure is:

So:

  • Si compro... = If I buy...
  • ataré... = I will tie...

This is similar to English If I buy..., I’ll tie...

Why is it unas zapatillas and not singular?

Because zapatillas refers to a pair of shoes, and Spanish normally uses the plural for that, just as English usually says shoes rather than a shoe.

So:

  • unas zapatillas = some trainers / a pair of trainers

The article unas can sound like some or simply mark an indefinite plural item.

Does zapatillas mean sneakers/trainers in Spain?

Yes. In Spain, zapatillas very often means trainers / sneakers.

This can be confusing because in other contexts or regions it can mean slippers. The exact meaning depends on the variety of Spanish and the context. In a sentence about cordones and buying new footwear, it clearly means trainers/sneakers.

Why does nuevas come after zapatillas?

In Spanish, descriptive adjectives usually come after the noun:

  • zapatillas nuevas = new trainers

That is the normal, neutral order. Putting the adjective before the noun can sometimes add emphasis or a more subjective tone, but zapatillas nuevas is the ordinary way to say it.

What exactly does atar los cordones mean?

It means to tie the shoelaces.

  • atar = to tie
  • los cordones = the laces / shoelaces

So atar los cordones is the standard expression for tying shoelaces.

Why is there no me in ataré mejor los cordones? Could it be me ataré mejor los cordones?

Yes, me ataré mejor los cordones is also possible, and many speakers would find it more natural when talking about tying your own shoelaces.

Compare:

  • ataré los cordones = I will tie the laces
  • me ataré los cordones = I will tie my shoelaces / tie the laces for myself

Spanish often uses a reflexive pronoun for actions people do to themselves or to their own body/clothing, but leaving it out is still understandable.

What does mejor mean here?

Here mejor means better and works as an adverb, modifying ataré:

  • ataré mejor los cordones = I’ll tie the laces better

It tells you how the action will be done.

What does los de estas mean exactly?

It is an elliptical way of saying the ones from these or more naturally the laces on these ones.

Break it down:

  • los stands for los cordones
  • de estas means of these [zapatillas]

So los de estas means:

  • the laces of these shoes
  • more natural English: the laces on these ones

Spanish often leaves out repeated nouns when they are already clear from context.

Why is it estas on its own, with no noun after it?

Because the noun zapatillas is understood and does not need to be repeated.

So estas really means:

  • estas zapatillas = these trainers
  • but shortened to estas = these ones

This is very common in Spanish when the noun is obvious from the context.

Why doesn’t estas have an accent mark?

Modern standard Spanish normally writes demonstratives without an accent, even when they stand alone:

  • este, esa, estas, esos

Older materials may show forms like éstas, but current standard spelling generally prefers estas with no accent.

Why is it están viejos and not son viejos?

Because the sentence is talking about the state/condition of the laces: they are old/worn now.

In Spanish, estar is often used for a current condition, especially when something is worn out, damaged, dirty, etc.

So:

  • están viejos = they’re old / worn out

Also, viejos agrees with cordones, which is masculine plural.

Why is it viejos and not viejas?

Because viejos describes los cordones, not las zapatillas.

If the adjective described zapatillas, then it would be feminine plural:

  • las zapatillas están viejas

But here the sentence specifically says the laces are old.

Why is it porque and not por qué?

Because porque means because, giving the reason:

  • porque los de estas están viejos = because the laces on these are old

By contrast:

So:

  • Lo hago porque... = I do it because...
  • ¿Por qué lo haces? = Why do you do it?
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