Es mejor que bebas té caliente si tienes dolor de garganta.

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Questions & Answers about Es mejor que bebas té caliente si tienes dolor de garganta.

Why is it Es mejor que bebas and not Es mejor que bebes?

Because es mejor que... expresses a recommendation/subjective judgment, Spanish typically uses the subjunctive after que.

  • Es mejor que bebas = It’s better that you drink... (advice)
    If it were a statement of fact (not advice), you’d be more likely to see the indicative, but with mejor que
    • action, the subjunctive is the normal choice in Spain.
What tense/person is bebas?

Bebas is present subjunctive, form of beber.
Conjugation (present subjunctive):

  • (yo) beba
  • (tú) bebas
  • (él/ella/usted) beba
  • (nosotros) bebamos
  • (vosotros) bebáis
  • (ellos/ustedes) beban
Could I say Es mejor beber té caliente... instead?

Yes. That’s a very common alternative.

  • Es mejor beber té caliente si tienes dolor de garganta. = It’s better to drink hot tea if you have a sore throat.
    Using Es mejor + infinitive sounds more general/impersonal.
    Using Es mejor que + subjunctive often feels more like advice directed at someone (even if isn’t explicitly stated).
Why is que used here? What does it mean?

Here que works like that in English: It’s better that you...
It introduces a subordinate clause (que bebas té caliente) which is why the verb inside that clause can switch to the subjunctive.

Is the subject implied? Can I add it?

Yes, is implied in bebas. You can add for emphasis or contrast:

  • Es mejor que tú bebas té caliente...
    Normally Spanish drops subject pronouns when they’re not needed.
Why does Spanish use the subjunctive for advice/recommendations?

Because the subjunctive is commonly used for actions seen as non-factual: wishes, recommendations, doubts, emotions, value judgments, etc.
Here you’re not stating that the person does drink hot tea—you’re saying it would be a good idea.

What’s the function of si here? Does it trigger subjunctive?

Si means if and introduces a condition: si tienes dolor de garganta.
In this sentence it uses indicative (tienes) because it’s a real/possible condition.
Spanish generally uses:

  • si + present indicative for real/likely conditions: si tienes...
    Subjunctive with si is used mainly in more hypothetical patterns (e.g., si tuviera..., si hubiera tenido...), not here.
Why is it tienes (present) and not tengas (subjunctive)?

Because after si in a real condition, Spanish uses the indicative, not the subjunctive:

  • si tienes dolor de garganta = if you have a sore throat (a real possibility)
    tengas would sound wrong in this structure.
What does dolor de garganta literally mean, and is it the normal way to say “sore throat”?
Literally it’s pain of throat. Yes, tener dolor de garganta is a standard, natural way to say you have a sore throat. Another common option is tener la garganta irritada (throat irritated).
Why is there no article in dolor de garganta (no un/el before dolor)?

In Spanish, expressions like tener dolor de + body part typically omit the article:

  • tener dolor de cabeza (headache)
  • tener dolor de estómago (stomachache)
  • tener dolor de garganta
    It’s a set, very common pattern.
Could I say en la garganta instead of de garganta?

Not in this specific fixed expression. For “sore throat,” Spanish normally uses dolor de garganta.
Dolor en la garganta is possible in general Spanish and can sound a bit more descriptive (pain located in the throat), but dolor de garganta is the go-to phrase.

Why is it té caliente and not caliente té?

In Spanish, adjectives usually come after the noun: té caliente.
Putting caliente before (caliente té) is not the normal order and would sound wrong here.

Does caliente mean “hot” or “warm”?
Caliente generally means hot/warm depending on context. With tea, it often means hot (as in served hot). If you specifically mean “warm (not hot),” you can say templado: té templado.
Is this sentence specifically from Spain Spanish? Anything that differs in Latin America?

It’s neutral and works across the Spanish-speaking world. Nothing here is uniquely Spain-only.
One small note: the use of forms (bebas, tienes) is common in Spain and also in many Latin American countries, though some regions prefer vos (voseo), which would change the forms.

How would it change if I’m addressing usted instead of ?

You’d switch to usted verb forms:

  • Es mejor que beba té caliente si tiene dolor de garganta.
    Here beba and tiene match usted.
How would it change for vosotros (plural “you” in Spain)?

For plural “you” in Spain:

  • Es mejor que bebáis té caliente si tenéis dolor de garganta.
    (bebáis = present subjunctive vosotros; tenéis = present indicative vosotros)
Can I put the si clause first?

Yes, and it’s very common. You’d usually add a comma:

  • Si tienes dolor de garganta, es mejor que bebas té caliente.
Is Es mejor que... interchangeable with Más vale que...?

Often, yes, both can give advice.

  • Es mejor que bebas... = more neutral, “it’s better that you...”
  • Más vale que bebas... = can sound stronger/more insistent (“you’d better...”), depending on tone and context.