Questions & Answers about Hostes urbem perdere volunt.
Why is hostes the subject here? Doesn’t hostes sometimes mean an object too?
Yes. Hostes can be either:
- nominative plural = the enemies as the subject
- accusative plural = the enemies as the direct object
So how do we know which it is here?
Because of the rest of the sentence:
- volunt = they want, so it needs a plural subject
- urbem is clearly accusative singular, so that is the direct object of perdere
That makes hostes the most natural subject: the enemies want to destroy the city.
So Latin often uses context and agreement to show the role of a word.
Why is urbem used instead of urbs?
Because urbem is the accusative singular form of urbs.
- urbs = nominative singular, used for the subject
- urbem = accusative singular, used for the direct object
Since the city is the thing being destroyed, it must be in the accusative case, so Latin uses urbem.
Why is perdere in the infinitive instead of a finite verb like perdunt?
Because after volunt (they want), Latin normally uses an infinitive.
So the structure is:
- volunt = they want
- perdere = to destroy
Together: they want to destroy
This is very similar to English, where want is also followed by an infinitive: want to destroy.
If you used perdunt, that would mean they destroy, not to destroy.
Why is there no separate Latin word for to before perdere?
Because in Latin, the infinitive form itself already includes the idea of to.
So:
- perdere = to destroy
- not to + destroy as two separate words
This is normal in Latin. The infinitive is a single word.
What tense is volunt?
Volunt is present tense.
It comes from velle, meaning to want.
So volunt means:
- they want
- or sometimes they are willing
In this sentence, they want is the natural meaning.
Why is volunt plural?
Because the subject is plural: hostes = the enemies.
Latin verbs must agree with their subject in person and number.
- hostis = singular enemy
- hostes = plural enemies
- so the verb must be plural too: volunt = they want
If the subject were singular, you would expect vult = he/she/it wants.
What are the dictionary forms of these words?
They are:
- hostis, hostis = enemy
- urbs, urbis = city
- perdo, perdere, perdidi, perditum = destroy, ruin, lose
- volo, velle, volui = want, wish
A learner often sees sentence forms first, but dictionary forms help you recognize where they come from.
For this sentence:
- hostes comes from hostis
- urbem comes from urbs
- perdere is already a dictionary form, the present active infinitive
- volunt comes from volo / velle
What declensions are hostes and urbem?
Both nouns belong to the third declension.
- hostis, hostis is a third-declension noun
- urbs, urbis is also a third-declension noun
Their forms here are:
- hostes = nominative plural
- urbem = accusative singular
Third-declension nouns can have forms that look less predictable to English speakers, so these are worth memorizing carefully.
Could the word order be different?
Yes. Latin word order is more flexible than English word order because endings show grammatical function.
So all of these could mean basically the same thing:
- Hostes urbem perdere volunt.
- Urbem hostes perdere volunt.
- Volunt hostes urbem perdere.
- Hostes volunt urbem perdere.
The original order is perfectly normal, but changing the order can shift emphasis.
For example:
- putting urbem first can emphasize the city
- putting volunt first can emphasize the wanting
English relies much more heavily on word order to show who is doing what.
Why doesn’t Latin use the before hostes or urbem?
Because Classical Latin has no definite article and no indefinite article.
So Latin does not have separate words exactly like:
- the
- a / an
A noun like hostes can mean:
- enemies
- the enemies
And urbem can mean:
- a city
- the city
You decide from context which English translation sounds best.
How do we know urbem is the object of perdere and not of volunt?
Because velle (to want) does not make sense here with urbem as its direct object.
What the enemies want is not the city; what they want is to destroy the city.
So the structure is:
- hostes = subject
- volunt = main verb
- perdere urbem = infinitive phrase, to destroy the city
Inside that infinitive phrase:
- perdere is the infinitive
- urbem is its direct object
Is perdere always best translated as destroy?
Not always. Perdere can have a range of meanings, including:
- destroy
- ruin
- waste
- lose
But with urbem (city) as its object, destroy or ruin is the most natural translation.
So in this sentence, destroy is the clearest choice.
How would this sentence be pronounced?
A careful classroom pronunciation would be approximately:
HOS-tays OOR-bem PER-de-reh WOH-loont
More exactly in reconstructed Classical pronunciation:
- hostēs = hos-tays
- urbem = oor-bem
- perdere = pehr-deh-reh
- volunt = woh-loont
A few useful notes:
- final -m is light
- v is pronounced like English w in Classical pronunciation
- e is always pronounced, never silent
What is the basic grammatical pattern of the whole sentence?
The pattern is:
subject + object + infinitive + main verb
More specifically:
- Hostes = subject
- urbem = object of the infinitive
- perdere = infinitive
- volunt = main verb
So this is a very common Latin construction:
[someone] + [something] + [infinitive] + volunt
meaning
[someone] wants to [do something to something]
Could this sentence also be written with macrons?
Yes. With macrons, it is:
Hostēs urbem perdere volunt.
The macron here is on ē in hostēs because that vowel is long.
Macrons are often omitted in ordinary texts, but they are very helpful for learners because they show vowel length, which can matter for:
- pronunciation
- poetry
- sometimes distinguishing forms
So both of these are the same sentence:
- Hostes urbem perdere volunt.
- Hostēs urbem perdere volunt.
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