Breakdown of Quamvis puellae laudem accipiant, modestiam tamen servant.
Questions & Answers about Quamvis puellae laudem accipiant, modestiam tamen servant.
Why is quamvis followed by accipiant in the subjunctive?
Because quamvis meaning although or even though is commonly followed by the subjunctive in Latin.
So in this sentence:
- accipiant = present subjunctive, 3rd person plural of accipere
This is a standard construction:
- quamvis + subjunctive
Even though English does not usually show a special verb form after although, Latin does.
Why is servant not subjunctive too?
Because servant is in the main clause, not in the clause introduced by quamvis.
The sentence is divided like this:
- Quamvis puellae laudem accipiant = subordinate concessive clause
- modestiam tamen servant = main clause
Latin often uses:
- subjunctive in the concessive clause after quamvis
- indicative in the main statement
So:
- accipiant = subjunctive
- servant = indicative
What case is puellae, and how do we know?
Here puellae is nominative plural, and it is the subject of both verbs:
- accipiant = they receive
- servant = they preserve / keep
So puellae means the girls.
A beginner might notice that puellae can also be:
- genitive singular
- dative singular
- nominative plural
- vocative plural
But here the verb is 3rd person plural, so nominative plural makes sense.
What case are laudem and modestiam?
Both are accusative singular.
They are the direct objects of the verbs:
- laudem accipiant = receive praise
- modestiam servant = preserve modesty
Forms:
- laus, laudis → laudem
- modestia, modestiae → modestiam
So each noun is what the action is being done to.
Why is tamen there if quamvis already means although?
Because Latin often likes to pair a concessive word like quamvis with tamen in the main clause.
This gives a pattern like:
- Although X, nevertheless Y
So:
- quamvis = although
- tamen = nevertheless / still / yet
In English, nevertheless is often optional. In Latin, tamen is very common and helps emphasize the contrast.
Why is the word order so different from normal English?
Latin word order is much more flexible than English word order because Latin uses endings to show the role of each word.
In this sentence:
- puellae is the subject because of its form
- laudem and modestiam are objects because of their accusative endings
- accipiant and servant are the verbs
So Latin can arrange the words for style or emphasis without causing much confusion.
A very plain English-like order would be something like:
- Quamvis puellae accipiant laudem, tamen servant modestiam.
But the original order is perfectly natural Latin.
Does quamvis always take the subjunctive?
In the sense used here, yes: quamvis meaning although normally takes the subjunctive.
However, quamvis can also be used in another way, more like as much as you like or however much, and then it may behave a bit differently depending on the construction.
For a learner at this stage, the safest rule is:
- quamvis meaning although → usually followed by the subjunctive
What tense is accipiant, and why is it present?
Accipiant is present subjunctive active, 3rd person plural.
It is present because the sentence describes a general or ongoing idea:
- even though the girls are receiving praise / receive praise, they still preserve modesty
The present subjunctive after quamvis is very common when the action is happening at the same time as the main verb.
What tense and conjugation is servant?
Servant is:
- present indicative active
- 3rd person plural
- from servare
So it means they preserve, they keep, or they maintain.
It is from the first conjugation:
- servo, servare, servavi, servatus
Do not confuse it with serviunt from servire (to serve), which is a different verb.
Is laus really a singular noun here? Why not plural praise?
Yes, laudem is singular.
Latin often uses a singular abstract noun where English might use either singular or plural depending on style. So laudem accipiant can naturally mean:
- receive praise
- receive commendation
English does not always need an article here, and Latin has no articles anyway.
Why is there no word for the or their in the sentence?
Latin has no articles, so it does not use words like the, a, or an.
It also often leaves possessive ideas implied when they are obvious from context. So modestiam servant can mean:
- they preserve modesty
- they preserve their modesty
Latin does not need to say suam modestiam unless it wants extra emphasis or clarity.
Could puellae go with only accipiant, or with both verbs?
It naturally goes with both verbs.
So the structure is understood as:
- puellae accipiant
- puellae servant
Latin often states the subject once and lets it apply to more than one verb.
That is very common and perfectly normal.
What kind of clause is Quamvis puellae laudem accipiant?
It is a concessive clause.
A concessive clause expresses something like:
- although...
- even though...
- granted that...
It presents a fact or idea that might seem to go against the main statement, but does not prevent it.
So here the contrast is:
- they receive praise
- yet they still remain modest
That is exactly the kind of idea a concessive clause is used for.
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