Cum sacerdos coronam deae obtulerit, omnes quieti stabunt.

Questions & Answers about Cum sacerdos coronam deae obtulerit, omnes quieti stabunt.

Why is obtulerit translated with future force here?

Because obtulerit is very likely a future perfect indicative here, not a subjunctive.

In Latin, when one clause refers to a future action that will be completed before another future action, Latin often uses:

  • future perfect in the earlier clause
  • future in the main clause

So:

  • Cum sacerdos coronam deae obtulerit = When the priest has offered the crown to the goddess
  • omnes quieti stabunt = all will stand quietly / all will stand still

This is a very common Latin way of expressing “when X has happened, Y will happen.”


A useful pattern to remember:

  • cum ... fecerit, ... faciet
  • when ... has done ..., ... will do ...

So the sequence is:

  1. the priest will offer the crown
  2. then everyone will stand quietly
Does cum mean when here or since / although?

Here it means when.

The word cum can mean different things depending on context:

  • when
  • since
  • although

In this sentence, the sense is clearly temporal: one action happens, and then another follows.

So:

  • Cum sacerdos coronam deae obtulerit = When the priest has offered the crown to the goddess

It is not likely to mean since or although here.

Why isn’t cum followed by the subjunctive here?

It may look like it is, because obtulerit can also be a subjunctive form in other contexts. But in this sentence it is best taken as a future perfect indicative.

That matters because learners often hear that cum takes the subjunctive. That is true in many kinds of cum clauses, especially:

  • cum circumstantial
  • cum causal
  • cum concessive

For example:

  • cum hoc fecisset... = since / although / when he had done this...

But temporal cum can take the indicative, especially when the meaning is straightforwardly when.

Here the future meaning of the whole sentence strongly points to:

  • obtulerit = future perfect indicative
  • stabunt = future indicative

So the sentence means something like When the priest has offered... all will stand...

What case is sacerdos, and why?

Sacerdos is nominative singular, because it is the subject of obtulerit.

So:

  • sacerdos = the priest
  • obtulerit = will have offered / has offered

Together:

  • sacerdos obtulerit = the priest will have offered

A helpful note: sacerdos is a third-declension noun, so its nominative singular does not look like a typical first- or second-declension subject form.

Is sacerdos masculine or feminine?

Grammatically, sacerdos can refer to either a male priest or a female priestess, depending on context.

It is a noun of common gender. So the biological sex is not built into the form itself.

In this sentence, if the meaning given to the learner says priest, then that is how it is being understood here. But the word itself could also refer to a woman in another context.

What case is coronam, and what is its job in the sentence?

Coronam is accusative singular, and it is the direct object of obtulerit.

So it answers the question:

  • What did the priest offer?
  • coronam = the crown

This is why it ends in -am: it is a first-declension accusative singular form.

What case is deae here?

Deae is most naturally understood as dative singular here: to the goddess.

So the phrase means:

  • coronam deae obtulerit = has offered the crown to the goddess

This fits the verb offerre, which can take:

  • a direct object in the accusative: the thing offered
  • an indirect object in the dative: the person or deity to whom it is offered

So:

  • coronam = the crown
  • deae = to the goddess
Could deae also mean of the goddess?

Yes, deae is a form that can be either:

  • dative singular = to the goddess
  • genitive singular = of the goddess
  • nominative plural = goddesses

So in isolation, deae is ambiguous.

However, in this sentence, the most natural reading is dative singular:

  • The priest has offered the crown to the goddess

That is because offerre commonly uses a dative for the recipient.

If you took it as genitive, the phrase would mean:

  • the goddess’s crown

That is possible as a form, but less likely here than to the goddess.

Why is omnes nominative plural?

Because omnes is the subject of stabunt.

So:

  • omnes = all / everyone
  • stabunt = will stand

Together:

  • omnes stabunt = all will stand

Since it is nominative plural, it refers to more than one person.

Why is it omnes quieti stabunt and not just omnes stabunt?

Because quieti adds an extra idea: quiet, still, or silent.

So:

  • omnes stabunt = all will stand
  • omnes quieti stabunt = all will stand quietly / all will stand still / all will stand in silence

Here quieti is a predicate adjective agreeing with omnes.

Latin often uses an adjective with a verb like stare to describe the state of the subject while doing the action.

What exactly is quieti?

Quieti is a nominative masculine plural adjective agreeing with omnes.

It comes from quietus, -a, -um, meaning things like:

  • quiet
  • still
  • calm
  • at rest

In this sentence it describes the people included in omnes.

So the grammar is:

  • omnes = nominative plural subject
  • quieti = nominative plural adjective agreeing with it
  • stabunt = will stand
Why is quieti masculine plural?

Because omnes here is being treated as a masculine plural group, or as a mixed/unspecified group.

Latin often uses the masculine plural when referring to:

  • a group of men
  • a mixed group
  • a group whose gender is unspecified

So:

  • omnes quieti = all, being quiet / all quiet

If the group were clearly feminine, you would expect quietae instead.

Is quieti an adverb here?

No. It is an adjective, not an adverb.

English often uses an adverb in this kind of translation:

  • they will stand quietly

But Latin can express the same idea with an adjective agreeing with the subject:

  • quieti stabunt = literally something like they will stand quiet

This is perfectly normal Latin.

If Latin wanted a more straightforward adverb, it might use a different structure, but here the adjective is idiomatic and natural.

What tense is stabunt?

Stabunt is future indicative active, third person plural, from stare.

So it means:

  • they will stand

That matches the future sense of the whole sentence.

Because the subordinate action happens first and the main action follows, Latin uses:

  • obtulerit = future perfect
  • stabunt = future
Why is the word order so different from English?

Because Latin word order is much more flexible than English word order.

English relies heavily on position:

  • The priest offered the crown to the goddess

Latin relies much more on endings:

  • sacerdos = subject
  • coronam = direct object
  • deae = indirect object
  • stabunt = main verb

So Latin can move words around for emphasis, rhythm, or style without changing the basic meaning.

In this sentence, the structure is very normal:

  1. subordinate clause first: Cum sacerdos coronam deae obtulerit
  2. main clause second: omnes quieti stabunt
Why is the verb obtulerit at the end of its clause?

Because Latin very often puts the verb at or near the end of a clause.

That is not a rule that must always be followed, but it is extremely common.

So in the first clause:

  • Cum sacerdos coronam deae obtulerit

the verb comes last, which neatly completes the thought.

Likewise in the main clause:

  • omnes quieti stabunt

the verb also comes at the end.

This is a very typical Latin sentence shape.

What is the dictionary form of obtulerit?

The verb is offero, offerre, obtuli, oblatum.

This means to offer, to present, or to bring before.

The form obtulerit is built from the perfect stem obtul-.

That is why it may look a bit irregular if you were expecting something based directly on offer-. This verb is one of those common Latin verbs whose principal parts need to be learned carefully.

Why does offero become obtul- in the perfect?

Because offero is irregular in its principal parts.

Its principal parts are:

  • offero
  • offerre
  • obtuli
  • oblatum

So the perfect system is built from obtul-, not from offer-.

That is why you get forms like:

  • obtulit = he/she offered
  • obtulerit = he/she will have offered

This is something you simply have to learn as part of the verb’s principal parts.

How do I know who is doing what in the sentence?

The endings tell you.

  • sacerdos = nominative singular → the subject of obtulerit
  • coronam = accusative singular → the thing being offered
  • deae = dative singular → the recipient
  • omnes = nominative plural → the subject of stabunt
  • quieti = adjective agreeing with omnes
  • stabunt = plural verb → matches omnes

So the sentence has two different subjects:

  1. sacerdos in the cum clause
  2. omnes in the main clause
Why are there two different subjects in one sentence?

Because this sentence has two clauses:

  1. Cum sacerdos coronam deae obtulerit
  2. omnes quieti stabunt

Each clause can have its own subject and verb.

So:

  • first clause: the priest does the offering
  • second clause: everyone does the standing

This is completely normal in both Latin and English.

Could omnes mean everyone even though it is plural?

Yes.

Latin omnes is grammatically plural, but in English it is often translated either as:

  • all
  • everyone

depending on what sounds more natural.

So:

  • omnes quieti stabunt can be rendered as
    • all will stand quietly
    • everyone will stand quietly

Both convey the same idea.

Would English normally say when the priest has offered or just when the priest offers?

English often prefers when the priest offers or when the priest has offered, depending on style and context.

Latin is more precise about the sequence here:

  • the offering will be completed first
  • then everyone will stand

That is why Latin uses the future perfect.

So a natural English translation could be:

  • When the priest offers the crown to the goddess, all will stand quietly
  • or When the priest has offered the crown to the goddess, all will stand quietly

The second one shows the Latin tense relationship more explicitly.

Is there anything especially important to remember from this sentence?

Yes—three very useful points:

  1. Latin often uses future perfect + future for future sequence.

    • cum ... obtulerit, ... stabunt
  2. deae is a form with multiple possible meanings, so context matters.
    Here it is most likely dative singular: to the goddess.

  3. quieti is an adjective, not an adverb.
    Latin often says the equivalent of they will stand quiet where English says they will stand quietly.

Those are exactly the kinds of features that show up again and again in Latin.

AI Language TutorTry it ↗
What's the best way to learn Latin grammar?
Latin grammar becomes intuitive with practice. Focus on understanding the core patterns first — how sentences are structured, how verbs change form, and how words relate to each other. Our course breaks these concepts into small lessons so you can build understanding step by step.

Sign up free — start using our AI language tutor

Start learning Latin

Master Latin — from Cum sacerdos coronam deae obtulerit, omnes quieti stabunt to fluency

All course content and exercises are completely free — no paywalls, no trial periods.

  • Infinitely deep — unlimited vocabulary and grammar
  • Fast-paced — build complex sentences from the start
  • Unforgettable — efficient spaced repetition system
  • AI tutor to answer your grammar questions