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Hospes aquam vino miscet, sed puer vinum purum bibere cupit.

Hospes aquam vino miscet, sed puer vinum purum bibere cupit.
The guest mixes water with wine, but the boy desires to drink unmixed wine.
FromLesson 12inHardcore Latin
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Questions & Answers about Hospes aquam vino miscet, sed puer vinum purum bibere cupit.

Why is hospes the subject—what case is it, and what does it mean?
Hospes is nominative singular, so it’s the subject of miscet (mixes). The noun hospes, hospitis can mean guest, host, or more generally stranger depending on context; here it’s simply the guest doing the mixing.
Why is aquam in the accusative?

Aquam is accusative singular because it’s the direct object of miscet: the guest mixes water.

  • Dictionary form: aqua, aquae (f.)
  • Case ending: -am typically marks accusative singular in 1st declension.
What case is vino, and why isn’t there a preposition like cum?

Vino is ablative singular (from vinum, -ī, neut.). With verbs like miscēre (to mix), Latin often uses the ablative to express what something is mixed with (roughly with wine), without needing cum.
So aquam vino miscet = he mixes water with wine.

Why does Latin repeat vinum (first vino, then vinum)—is that normal?

Yes, it’s normal because they’re doing different grammatical jobs:

  • vino = ablative (with wine) after miscet
  • vinum = accusative (wine) as the direct object of bibere (to drink)
    Same noun, different cases, different roles.
What tense and person are miscet and cupit?

Both are present tense, 3rd person singular:

  • miscet = he/she mixes
  • cupit = he/she wants/desires
    Latin often leaves out an explicit he/she because the verb ending already shows the person/number.
Why is there a comma before sed, and what does sed do?

Sed means but and typically introduces a contrast between two clauses. The comma reflects that structure:

  • Clause 1: Hospes aquam vino miscet
  • Clause 2: sed puer vinum purum bibere cupit
    So: The guest mixes water with wine, but the boy wants to drink unmixed wine.
Why does puer appear without an article (the / a)?
Latin has no definite or indefinite articles. Puer can mean a boy or the boy depending on context. English has to choose; Latin doesn’t mark that difference with an article.
How does vinum purum work—why is purum neuter?

Purum is an adjective agreeing with vinum:

  • vinum is neuter singular accusative
  • so purum is also neuter singular accusative
    Agreement is in gender, number, and case. Meaning-wise, vinum purum is pure wine / unmixed wine.
Why is bibere an infinitive, and how does it relate to cupit?

Cupit often takes a complementary infinitive to complete its meaning: to want to do (something).
So bibere cupit literally = he wants to drink.
Here the full idea is vinum purum bibere cupit = he wants to drink unmixed wine.

Is the word order important here? Could it be rearranged?

Latin word order is flexible because endings show grammatical roles, but order still affects emphasis. The given order is straightforward:

  • aquam placed before vino highlights the thing being mixed, then what it’s mixed with.
  • vinum purum keeps noun + adjective together as a unit. You could rearrange (e.g., Puer cupit bibere vinum purum), but it may sound differently emphasized or less elegant depending on the context.

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