Post iudicium actrix iterum in scaena stat, et turba ei plaudit; laetitia in turba manet.

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Questions & Answers about Post iudicium actrix iterum in scaena stat, et turba ei plaudit; laetitia in turba manet.

Why is post followed by iudicium in the accusative?

Post (when it means after) is a preposition that normally takes the accusative. So post iudicium uses iudicium = accusative singular of iudicium, -iī (judgment / trial / verdict).
(Compare: post + accusative is standard; unlike some prepositions, it doesn’t switch meaning by case.)


How do I know what case iudicium is, since nominative and accusative look the same?

In second-declension neuter nouns, the nominative and accusative are identical in form (both singular end in -um). You identify the case from syntax: here it must be accusative because it’s the object of the preposition post.


What form is actrix, and why isn’t it actorem or something?

Actrix is nominative singular feminine, meaning a female actor (actress). It’s the subject of stat.
The masculine equivalent would be actor (nom. sg.), not actoremactorem would be accusative and wouldn’t fit as the subject here.


Why is the verb stat in the present tense—shouldn’t it be past?

Latin often uses the present tense to narrate events vividly (sometimes called the historical present), especially in storytelling or lively description. So stat can describe a scene as if it’s happening right now, even if the broader context is past.


What does iterum do, and does its position matter?

Iterum is an adverb meaning again. It modifies stat (the standing happens again).
Latin word order is flexible; placing iterum near actrix or near stat is common. The placement can slightly affect emphasis, but the basic meaning remains again.


Why is it in scaena and not in scaenam?

In takes:

  • ablative for location where (being/standing in a place) → in scaenā
  • accusative for motion toward (going into a place) → in scaenam

Since stat is standing (no motion into), Latin uses in + ablative: in scaena.


What case is scaena, and what declension is it?

Scaena is ablative singular here (because of in + ablative). It’s a first-declension noun: scaena, -ae.


Why is turba nominative, and what is it doing in the sentence?

Turba is nominative singular and is the subject of plaudit. Even though it refers to many people, it’s grammatically singular (a collective noun), so the verb is also singular: plaudit.


What is ei, and why is it not eam or with a long mark?

Ei is the dative singular of is, ea, id (here meaning to her).

  • eam would be accusative (her as a direct object).
  • is often written with a macron to show a long vowel, but many texts omit macrons; ei and are the same form.

Why does plaudere use the dative (ei)—why not an accusative object?

In Latin, plaudere commonly takes a dative for the person being applauded/approved: plaudere alicui = applaud someone / applaud for someone.
So turba ei plaudit uses ei correctly as the indirect object.


What’s the function of the semicolon in plaudit; laetitia...?

The semicolon is just punctuation to separate two closely related statements. Latin manuscripts didn’t use modern punctuation consistently; editors add punctuation for readability. Grammatically, nothing special happens because of it.


In laetitia in turba manet, why is laetitia the subject and not turba?

Because laetitia is nominative singular, and manet agrees with it (3rd person singular). In turba is a prepositional phrase in the ablative describing where the happiness remains. So the structure is: [Subject] laetitia + [verb] manet + [where] in turba.


Why is turba repeated—first as the crowd applauds, then again in turba?
Latin often repeats a noun for clarity and cohesion rather than using a pronoun every time. Here it keeps the focus on the crowd: first as an agent (turba plaudit), then as the location where an emotion remains (laetitia in turba manet). Using a pronoun could be possible, but repetition is natural and can feel more emphatic.