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Questions & Answers about Servus sportam ad villam portat, ut familia bene cenet.
Why does servus mean the slave here, and why is it in this form?
Servus is nominative singular, which is the case used for the subject of the sentence (the person doing the action). Latin has no word for the/a, so servus can mean a slave or the slave depending on context.
Why is sportam in the accusative (ending -am)?
Sportam is accusative singular because it is the direct object of portat: it’s the thing the slave is carrying.
Dictionary form: sporta, -ae (1st declension, feminine) → accusative singular sportam.
What does ad villam mean grammatically, and why is villam also accusative?
Ad is a preposition meaning to/toward (often implying motion). Ad takes the accusative case, so villa becomes villam.
So ad villam = to the villa / to the country house.
Could Latin have used a different construction than ad villam for to the villa?
Yes. Ad + accusative is very common for motion toward. But with some places you might also see:
- in villam = into the villa (emphasizes going inside)
- With certain city names/small islands you often get no preposition (e.g., Romam = to Rome), but villa is not one of those special place-nouns.
What tense is portat, and how do I know?
Portat is present tense, 3rd person singular of portāre (he/she/it carries). The ending -t signals 3rd person singular in the present tense for many verbs.
Why is the word order Servus sportam ad villam portat and not closer to English order?
Latin word order is flexible because case endings show each word’s role. A very common neutral pattern is:
- Subject – Object – (other info) – Verb
So placing portat at the end is normal. The sentence could be rearranged (e.g., Servus ad villam sportam portat) without changing the basic meaning, though emphasis may shift.
What does ut mean here, and what kind of clause is it introducing?
Ut here means so that / in order that and introduces a purpose clause. The first clause gives the action (the slave carries...), and the ut clause gives the purpose (so that the family may eat well).
Why is cenet in the subjunctive mood?
In Latin, purpose clauses introduced by ut require the subjunctive.
Cenet is present subjunctive, 3rd person singular of cenāre = may eat / may dine (in the sense of “so that they can/so that they may”).
How can I tell that cenet is present subjunctive?
For 1st conjugation verbs like cenāre, the present subjunctive changes the vowel:
- Indicative: cenat = he/she eats/dines
- Subjunctive: cenet = he/she may eat/dine
That -e- is the key sign here.
Why is familia singular if it refers to a group of people?
Latin often treats collective nouns like familia as singular grammatically (like English the family is). So it takes a singular verb: cenet (not cenent).
Could the sentence have used cenent instead of cenet?
If the author wanted to stress the individual family members (“so that they may dine”), cenent (3rd person plural subjunctive) could be used. But with familia as a unit, cenet is the straightforward choice.
What part of speech is bene, and what does it modify?
Bene is an adverb meaning well. It modifies the verb cenet: the family will dine well (i.e., have a good meal).
Why are there no articles (no word for the or a)?
Classical Latin does not have definite or indefinite articles. Definiteness is understood from context, or sometimes from demonstratives (e.g., hic, ille) if needed.
Does the comma before ut matter in Latin?
In many modern editions, a comma is used to help readers see the structure (main clause + purpose clause). Ancient Latin manuscripts didn’t use punctuation the same way, so the comma is mainly an editorial/teaching aid.
What are the dictionary forms (and genders) of the key nouns here?
- servus, -ī (masculine) = slave/servant
- sporta, -ae (feminine) = basket/hamper
- villa, -ae (feminine) = villa/country house/estate
- familia, -ae (feminine) = household/family
