Learn Hardcore Latin: Forte nos in foro amicum videmus. - By chance we see a friend in the forum.

It is an adverb, not an adjective. It tells us how the action happens:
Forte nos in foro amicum videmus = By chance we see a friend in the forum.

So:

forte (adverb) = by chance, accidentally
It is not describing a noun, so it’s not the adjective fortis, forte (brave, strong).

Is forte related to the adjective fortis, forte (“brave, strong”) or to English “forte”?

They are historically related in Latin, but function differently here.

fortis, forte is an adjective: brave, strong.
- e.g. vir fortis = a brave man.
forte in our sentence is an adverb meaning by chance.

English forte (“strong point”) comes from French and Latin roots meaning strong, so it’s related to fortis. But in Forte nos in foro amicum videmus, forte does not mean strongly; it means by chance.

Why is nos (we) present if videmus already shows that the subject is “we”?

Latin verbs usually contain the subject in their endings:

videmus = we see (-mus = “we”).

So the sentence could be simply:

Forte in foro amicum videmus. = By chance we see a friend in the forum.

nos is therefore not necessary grammatically; it’s used for:

clarity (especially in teaching contexts), or
emphasis: we (as opposed to someone else) see a friend…

Think of it like stressing “WE see a friend in the forum, by chance” in English.

Could nos mean “us” instead of “we” here? How do I know?

nos can be either:

nominative plural = we (subject), or
accusative plural = us (object).

In this sentence, nos must be “we” because:

The verb videmus is 1st person plural (we see), matching nos as a subject.
The direct object is clearly amicum (a friend), in the accusative singular.

If nos meant “us”, the sentence would say something like “…someone sees us”, but the verb would then need a different subject form, e.g. amīcus nōs videt = a friend sees us.

Why is it in foro and not in forum?

The preposition in can take:

the ablative = location (in, on, at), or
the accusative = motion towards (into, onto).

forum is a neuter noun of the 2nd declension:

nominative/accusative singular: forum
ablative singular: forō

In in foro:

in
- ablative (foro) = “in the forum” (location, where something happens).

If it were in forum (accusative), it would mean “into the forum” (motion towards).

What case is foro, and what does that case express here?

foro is ablative singular of forum, fori (forum, marketplace).

Here, the ablative expresses location together with in:

in foro = in the forum, at the forum.

Pattern:

in
- ablative = in / on / at (static location)
in
- accusative = into / onto (movement towards)

Why is amicum ending in -um instead of -us like amicus?

amicus is a 2nd-declension masculine noun:

nominative singular (subject): amicus = friend
accusative singular (direct object): amicum

In this sentence:

amicum is the direct object of videmus = we see (whom? what?) → a friend.
Therefore it must be in the accusative, which ends in -um.

So:

amicus nos videt = the friend sees us
nos amicum videmus = we see a friend

Why is there no word for “a” or “the” in this sentence?

Latin has no separate words for “a/an” or “the”. Nouns appear without articles, and context tells you whether to translate:

amicum as “a friend” or “the friend”.

So:

amicum videmus could be “we see a friend” or “we see the friend”, depending on context.
In isolation, it’s usually translated as “a friend” when first mentioned.

What is the form of videmus? How is it built, and what does it tell me?

videmus comes from the verb video, videre, vidi, visum (to see).

Form:

tense: present
voice: active
mood: indicative
person/number: 1st person plural (we)

So videmus = “we see” or “we are seeing”.

Breakdown:

stem: vide-
ending: -mus = we (1st person plural present active ending)

How would I say “By chance we saw a friend in the forum” instead of “we see”?

You would use the perfect tense of video (for a completed action in the past):

vidimus = we saw, we have seen.

So the sentence becomes:

Forte nos in foro amicum vidimus.
= By chance we saw a friend in the forum.

Can the word order of Forte nos in foro amicum videmus be changed? Does it matter?

Latin word order is flexible because roles are shown by endings, not position. Grammatically, all of these are possible:

Forte nos in foro amicum videmus.
Forte in foro amicum nos videmus.
Amicum forte nos in foro videmus.
Nos amicum in foro forte videmus.

All mean essentially “By chance we see a friend in the forum”.

However, word order can show emphasis:

Ending with the verb (…videmus) is very common.
Putting amicum first (e.g. Amicum forte nos in foro videmus) may emphasize “a friend”.
Placing nos early can stress “we”.

So: meaning is stable; nuance and emphasis can shift.

How would the sentence change if I wanted to say “By chance I see a friend in the forum”?

Only the verb changes; the subject becomes “I”:

video = I see.

So:

Forte in foro amicum video.
or, with explicit ego for emphasis:
Forte ego in foro amicum video.

Latin usually omits the subject pronoun unless it’s emphasized.

How would I say “By chance we see friends in the forum” (plural friends)?

Make amicus plural and keep it in the accusative as the direct object:

amicus (nom. sg.) → amici (nom. pl.)
amicum (acc. sg.) → amicos (acc. pl.)

Sentence:

Forte nos in foro amicos videmus.
= By chance we see friends in the forum.

What exactly is a forum in Roman context? Does in foro mean a specific place?

forum in Latin means:

a marketplace, public square, or place of assembly, where trade, law courts, and public life happened.

in foro can mean:

in the forum (the sort of town square/market), in general, or
in some contexts, in the Forum (the well-known Roman Forum in Rome).

Without extra context, it’s safest to translate as:

“in the forum” or “in the marketplace.”