Learn Hardcore Greek: Ο σκοπός αυτής της συμφωνίας είναι να νιώθουμε πιο άνετοι στη γλώσσα. - The purpose of this agreement is for us to feel more comfortable in the language.

«Ο σκοπός» = the purpose (subject, nominative).
What follows is something that belongs to the purpose: of this agreement → that is genitive in Greek.
So we use genitive: «αυτής της συμφωνίας» = of this agreement.

If we said «αυτή η συμφωνία», that would mean “this agreement (is) …” and it would be a different subject, not something that depends on «ο σκοπός».

What is the difference between «σκοπός» and «στόχος»?

Both are often translated as goal, aim, or purpose, but there is a nuance:

σκοπός = purpose, aim, reason for doing something
- More abstract or general:
  - Ο σκοπός της ζωής = the purpose of life
  - Ο σκοπός αυτής της συμφωνίας = the purpose of this agreement
στόχος = target, concrete goal, objective
- Often more measurable or specific:
  - Ο στόχος της εταιρείας είναι να αυξήσει τα κέρδη.
    The company’s goal is to increase profits.

In this sentence, we talk about the overall purpose of the agreement, so «σκοπός» is natural.

Why do we say «είναι να νιώθουμε» instead of using some infinitive like English “is to feel”?

Modern Greek does not have an infinitive. Instead, it uses να + verb (subjunctive) to express things that English often says with:

to do / to feel / to go
that we do / that we feel / that we go, etc.

Here, «είναι να νιώθουμε…» literally is like:

“is (for us) to feel…”
or “is that we feel…”

So «να νιώθουμε» is a να-clause acting as a complement of «είναι», playing the role that an infinitive would have in English.

What exactly is «νιώθουμε» (person, tense, mood)? How do we know it’s subjunctive?

Formally:

Person/number: 1st person plural = we
Aspect: imperfective (ongoing / repeated)
Present stem of νιώθω (to feel)

The form of present indicative and present subjunctive is the same (νιώθουμε).
We know it is subjunctive here because it comes after «να», which is the subjunctive marker:

(εμείς) νιώθουμε = we feel (indicative, on its own)
να νιώθουμε = (that) we feel / for us to feel (subjunctive, after να)

Could we say «να νιώσουμε» instead of «να νιώθουμε»? What would change?

Yes, but the nuance changes:

να νιώθουμε (imperfective aspect)
Focuses on a general, ongoing state: feeling more comfortable in general / habitually.
να νιώσουμε (perfective aspect)
Focuses on one event / one change: to (at some point) come to feel more comfortable.

In this context, «να νιώθουμε» fits better, because the purpose of the agreement is a lasting state of comfort with the language, not just a one-time moment.

What is the difference between «νιώθουμε» and «αισθανόμαστε»?

Both can mean we feel, and often they are interchangeable, especially for emotional or physical states:

Νιώθουμε κουρασμένοι.
Αισθανόμαστε κουρασμένοι.
→ We feel tired.

Nuances (not absolute rules):

νιώθω is slightly more colloquial / common and shorter.
αισθάνομαι can sound a bit more formal or “standard”, and is used often in written language.

In this sentence, «να νιώθουμε πιο άνετοι» sounds very natural and conversational.
«να αισθανόμαστε πιο άνετοι» would also be correct, just a little more formal-sounding.

Why is it «πιο άνετοι» and not «πιο άνετα» or «πιο άνετος»?

Because «άνετοι» is an adjective that agrees with the subject of the verb νιώθουμε:

Subject: we (a group of people) → masculine plural is the default plural for “we”.
So the adjective must be masculine plural nominative: άνετοι.

Compare:

Εγώ νιώθω άνετος. (I, male, feel comfortable.)
Εγώ νιώθω άνετη. (I, female, feel comfortable.)
Εμείς νιώθουμε άνετοι. (We feel comfortable.)

«πιο άνετα» would be an adverb (more comfortably), not an adjective, and would usually modify how we do something, e.g. μιλάμε πιο άνετα (we speak more comfortably), not how we are.

«πιο άνετος» is masculine singular; it doesn’t agree with “we”.

Why is the adjective «άνετοι» masculine plural? What if the group is all women?

Greek uses grammatical gender, not just biological gender.

When the group is mixed (men + women) → masculine plural.
When the group is all women and clearly known to be only women, you can use feminine plural:
- Να νιώθουμε πιο άνετες στη γλώσσα.

However, in many mixed or unspecified situations, Greek defaults to masculine plural, especially in general statements.
So «να νιώθουμε πιο άνετοι» is the standard default, even if the actual group is not specified.

Why is it «στη γλώσσα» and not something like «με τη γλώσσα»?

Both exist, but they have different nuances:

στη γλώσσα (σε + τη γλώσσα) = “in the language”
→ Emphasizes being inside the system of the language: using it, operating in it.
In English we might say “to feel comfortable in the language”.
με τη γλώσσα = “with the language”
→ Often sounds like “with respect to / regarding the language” or “using the language” as a tool.

In this sentence, «πιο άνετοι στη γλώσσα» is the most natural way to say “more comfortable in the language”, meaning in speaking it, understanding it, using it.

Do we really need the article in «στη γλώσσα»? Why not just «σε γλώσσα»?

In Greek, abstract or general nouns often still take the definite article, even when English would use no article:

στη γλώσσα = literally “in the language”
But context tells us which language we mean (e.g. Greek, English), or just “the language we’re talking about”.
σε γλώσσα without article would sound like “in a language” (any language), which is not what we mean here.

So «στη γλώσσα» is the natural idiomatic choice, like:

Μου αρέσει η μουσική. = I like music. (literally “the music”)
Έχω πρόβλημα με τη γραμματική. = I have a problem with grammar. (literally “the grammar”)

How is «αυτής» pronounced, and why is it af- and not av-?

«αυτής» is pronounced roughly [afˈtis].

The combination αυ is pronounced:

[av] before voiced consonants (β, γ, δ, ζ, λ, μ, ν, ρ) or vowels
[af] before voiceless consonants (κ, π, τ, φ, θ, χ, σ, ξ, ψ)

In «αυτής», the next consonant is τ (voiceless), so:

αυ + τ → [af]
- [t] → [afˈtis]

This is why «αυτής» sounds like “aftís”, not “avtís”.

Can we change the word order, for example «να νιώθουμε στη γλώσσα πιο άνετοι»? Is that still correct?

Yes, Greek word order is quite flexible. You could say:

Ο σκοπός αυτής της συμφωνίας είναι να νιώθουμε στη γλώσσα πιο άνετοι.
Ο σκοπός αυτής της συμφωνίας είναι να νιώθουμε πιο άνετοι στη γλώσσα.

Both are grammatically correct. The second (original) order sounds more natural and neutral.
Moving «στη γλώσσα» earlier can add slight emphasis on “in the language”, but the meaning remains the same.