Mi hijo jugó con el teclado y presionó la misma tecla hasta que el altavoz pitó.

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Questions & Answers about Mi hijo jugó con el teclado y presionó la misma tecla hasta que el altavoz pitó.

Why are jugó and presionó in the preterite tense?
Because the speaker describes completed, one-time actions that happened at a specific moment in the past. The preterite is used for events viewed as finished: he played with the keyboard (once) and pressed the key (once).
Why does hasta que take pitó in the indicative and not the subjunctive?
When hasta que introduces an action that actually occurred and is viewed as completed, Spanish uses the indicative. If the action were anticipated or hadn’t happened yet, you’d use the subjunctive (e.g., “No lo suelto hasta que pite.”).
Why is con used after jugar here?
In Spanish, when you “play with” an object, toy, or instrument, you use jugar con + the object. So jugó con el teclado means he played with the keyboard. In contrast, when you “play” a game or sport, you use jugar a (e.g., jugar al fútbol).
What does teclado mean, and how can I tell it refers to a computer keyboard rather than a piano?
Teclado means “keyboard.” Context clues—pressing the same key repeatedly and the altavoz beeping—point to a computer (or electronic) keyboard. If it were a piano keyboard, you’d usually say teclado de piano or simply piano.
What does la misma tecla mean? Why is it singular?
La misma tecla means “the same key.” It’s singular because it refers to one specific key that was pressed over and over. If he had pressed several identical keys, you’d say las mismas teclas.
What does altavoz mean? Are there other Latin American words for it?
Altavoz means “speaker” (the device that emits sound). In various Latin American countries you might also hear bocina (especially in Mexico) or parlante.
What is the verb pitar in this context?
Here, pitar means “to emit a beep” or “to beep.” It’s an onomatopoeic verb used for devices (like alarms, horns, or speakers) making a short, sharp sound.
Why do jugó, presionó, and pitó all carry an accent mark?
They are third-person singular forms of regular -ar verbs in the preterite. In Spanish, the preterite ending carries a written accent to show that the stress falls on that final syllable and to distinguish it from the present-tense ending -o.
Why is there no subject pronoun before the verbs?
Spanish frequently omits subject pronouns when the subject is clear from the context. Here, mi hijo serves as the subject, so adding él would be redundant unless you want to emphasize “he.”