Breakdown of Pater veretur ne mora longa infantibus obsit.
Questions & Answers about Pater veretur ne mora longa infantibus obsit.
Why is veretur translated actively even though it looks passive?
Because vereor, vereri, veritus sum is a deponent verb.
Deponent verbs:
- have passive forms
- but active meanings
So veretur is grammatically a passive-looking form, but it means he fears or he is afraid, not he is feared.
Here:
- pater = the father
- veretur = fears / is afraid
So pater veretur means the father fears.
Why does Latin use ne after veretur? Doesn’t ne usually mean not?
After verbs of fearing, Latin uses ne and ut in a way that often feels reversed to English speakers.
With a verb of fearing:
- ne = that something may happen, when the speaker fears that it will happen
- ut = that not, when the speaker fears that something will not happen
So in this sentence:
- veretur ne mora longa infantibus obsit
- literally: he fears lest a long delay may harm the children
- natural English: he fears that a long delay may harm the children
So ne here does not simply mean ordinary negation. It introduces the thing feared.
Why is obsit in the subjunctive?
Because it is in a fear clause after veretur.
Latin normally uses the subjunctive in subordinate clauses after verbs of fearing:
- timeo ne...
- vereor ne...
- metuo ne...
So obsit is subjunctive because it is the verb inside the clause introduced by ne.
More specifically:
- obsit = present subjunctive
- from obsum, obesse, obfui = to be harmful to
The subjunctive here does not necessarily make the action unreal; it is just the normal construction after a verb of fearing.
What exactly is obsit? It doesn’t look like a form I would expect.
obsit comes from obsum, meaning to be harmful to or to hurt.
This verb is built from:
- ob-
- sum
Its present subjunctive forms are:
- obsim
- obsis
- obsit
- obsimus
- obsitis
- obsint
So obsit means may harm, may be harmful, or might hurt.
This is a good verb to memorize separately, because compounds of sum often have forms that look a little unusual at first.
Why is infantibus in the dative?
Because obsum takes the dative of the person or thing affected.
So:
- obsum alicui = I am harmful to someone
- infantibus = to the children / infants
In this sentence:
- mora longa is the thing doing the harm
- infantibus are the ones affected by it
So infantibus is dative because Latin says literally:
- a long delay may be harmful to the children
Is mora longa the subject? Why is it nominative?
Yes, mora longa is the subject of obsit.
Breakdown:
- mora = delay
- longa = long, agreeing with mora
- both are nominative singular feminine
Since obsit means may be harmful, something has to be the thing that is harmful. That thing is mora longa.
So the structure is:
- Pater veretur = The father fears
- ne mora longa infantibus obsit = that a long delay may harm the children
Why is it longa and not longam?
Because longa agrees with mora, which is nominative singular feminine here.
Agreement in Latin means an adjective matches its noun in:
- gender
- number
- case
So:
- mora = nominative singular feminine
- longa = nominative singular feminine
If it were longam, that would be accusative singular feminine, which would not fit the syntax here.
What tense is veretur, and what tense is obsit?
- veretur is present indicative
- obsit is present subjunctive
So the sentence presents the father’s fear as a present situation:
- the father fears
And the feared action is also presented in present time relative to that fear:
- that a long delay may harm the children
A very literal sense is:
- The father is afraid that a long delay may be harmful to the children.
Why is the word order Pater veretur ne mora longa infantibus obsit? Could Latin arrange it differently?
Yes, Latin word order is much freer than English word order because the endings show the grammar.
This sentence puts:
- Pater first, introducing the topic
- veretur next, giving the main action
- then the whole fear clause
- with obsit at the end, which is a very common place for a verb in Latin
Latin often likes to place the main verb or subordinate verb at the end of its clause. So infantibus obsit feels very natural.
Other arrangements are possible, for example:
- Pater ne mora longa infantibus obsit veretur
- Pater veretur ne infantibus mora longa obsit
But the original order is clear and idiomatic.
Could infantibus mean for the children instead of to the children?
In a broad sense, yes, English may translate the dative in different ways depending on what sounds natural. But grammatically here it is the dative with obsum, so the core idea is:
- harmful to the children
English might express this as:
- harm the children
- be harmful to the children
- be bad for the children
So for the children could appear in a smooth translation, but the underlying Latin construction is specifically dative after obsum.
What is the most literal way to understand the whole sentence?
A very literal unpacking would be:
- Pater = the father
- veretur = fears
- ne = that / lest
- mora longa = a long delay
- infantibus = to the children
- obsit = may be harmful
So, word for word:
- The father fears that a long delay may be harmful to the children.
Or even more literally:
- The father fears lest a long delay be harmful to the children.
That kind of literal version helps show the grammar, even if a more natural English translation would sound smoother.
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