Arra hivatkozva, hogy viharkár volt, kárigényt nyújtunk be.

Questions & Answers about Arra hivatkozva, hogy viharkár volt, kárigényt nyújtunk be.

What does Arra hivatkozva, hogy ... mean as a whole?

It is a formal expression meaning citing the fact that ..., on the grounds that ..., or claiming that ....

So:

  • Arra hivatkozva, hogy viharkár volt = on the grounds that there was storm damage
  • The whole sentence is an official-sounding way to say that a claim is being submitted because storm damage occurred.
Why is arra there? What exactly is it doing?

Arra is the pronoun az in the -ra/-re case.

It is there because hivatkozni normally takes this case:

  • hivatkozik valamire = refers to / cites / relies on something

When the something is not a noun but a whole clause, Hungarian often uses this pattern:

  • arra ... hogy ...
  • literally: to that ... that ...

So:

  • arra hivatkozva, hogy ... = citing that ... / citing the fact that ...

This is a very common Hungarian structure:

  • örülök annak, hogy ...
  • emlékszem arra, hogy ...
  • büszke vagyok arra, hogy ...
What is hivatkozva? Is it a normal verb form?

Yes. Hivatkozva is an adverbial participle made with -va/-ve.

Base verb:

  • hivatkozik = to refer to, cite, invoke

Participle:

  • hivatkozva = referring to, citing, invoking

So:

  • Arra hivatkozva, hogy viharkár volt literally means something like Referring to the fact that there was storm damage...

In more natural English, that becomes:

  • On the grounds that there was storm damage...

A finite-verb version would be:

  • Arra hivatkozunk, hogy viharkár volt.
  • We claim/cite that there was storm damage.
What does viharkár mean, and why is it one word?

Viharkár is a compound noun:

  • vihar = storm
  • kár = damage

So viharkár means storm damage or damage caused by a storm.

It is one word because Hungarian very often forms compounds where English uses two words. This is especially common in technical, legal, or insurance vocabulary.

Similar examples:

  • jégkár = hail damage
  • tűzkár = fire damage
  • árvízkár = flood damage
Why is it viharkár volt and not viharkárt volt?

Because viharkár is not a direct object here. It is part of a predicate with volt.

  • volt = was
  • viharkár volt = there was storm damage

After van / volt / lesz, Hungarian uses the noun in its basic form here, not the accusative.

So:

  • viharkár volt = correct
  • viharkárt volt = incorrect

You can think of it like English there was damage, where damage is not an object either.

Why is volt in the past tense?

Because the sentence presents the storm damage as an earlier fact, and the submitting of the claim as the current action.

  • viharkár volt = there was storm damage
  • kárigényt nyújtunk be = we are submitting a claim

So the timeline is:

  1. the damage happened
  2. now the claim is being submitted

That tense combination is completely normal.

What is kárigényt, and why does it end in -t?

The base noun is kárigény:

  • kár = damage
  • igény = claim, demand
  • kárigény = damage claim / insurance claim / claim for compensation

The -t is the accusative ending, marking the direct object.

So:

  • kárigény = a claim
  • kárigényt = a claim, as the thing being submitted

It is the object of nyújtunk be.

Why is it nyújtunk and not nyújtjuk?

This is about the Hungarian indefinite vs. definite conjugation.

Here the object is kárigényt, which is indefinite:

  • there is no definite article
  • it is not presented as a specific already-identified claim

So Hungarian uses the indefinite verb form:

  • nyújtunk be = we submit

If the object were definite, you would use the definite conjugation:

  • A kárigényt nyújtjuk be.
  • We are submitting the claim.

So:

  • kárigényt nyújtunk be = indefinite
  • a kárigényt nyújtjuk be = definite
Why is there no article before kárigényt?

Because the sentence is talking about submitting a claim, not the claim.

In Hungarian, if the object is indefinite or being mentioned in a general/procedural way, the article is often omitted or an indefinite reading is used naturally.

So:

  • kárigényt nyújtunk be = we submit a claim / we are filing a claim
  • a kárigényt nyújtjuk be = we are submitting the claim

In official or administrative language, article-less objects in set phrases are especially common.

Why is the verb split as nyújtunk be instead of benyújtunk?

The full verb is benyújt:

  • be- = verbal prefix
  • nyújt = submit / present / extend
  • benyújt = submit, file

Hungarian verbal prefixes often move after the verb when another element stands directly before the verb in the important preverbal position.

So:

  • Benyújtunk egy kárigényt. = We submit a claim.
  • Kárigényt nyújtunk be. = also We submit a claim, but with a different sentence structure/information focus

In this sentence, kárigényt comes before the verb, so the prefix appears after it:

  • nyújtunk be

This is very normal Hungarian word order.

Why are there commas in this sentence?

There are two reasons:

  1. hogy introduces a subordinate clause, so Hungarian normally puts a comma before it:

    • arra hivatkozva, hogy viharkár volt
  2. The whole opening phrase is an introductory subordinate/participial construction, so it is separated from the main clause with another comma:

    • Arra hivatkozva, hogy viharkár volt, kárigényt nyújtunk be.

So the commas are standard and expected in formal writing.

Does this sentence sound formal?

Yes. It sounds quite formal, official, and especially appropriate for insurance, legal, or administrative contexts.

A more everyday version might be something like:

  • Mivel viharkár volt, kárigényt adunk be.
  • Azért adunk be kárigényt, mert viharkár volt.

The original sentence is not unnatural at all—it just belongs to a more bureaucratic/register-specific style.

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