Breakdown of Modo sors lusori favet, modo adversario favet.
Questions & Answers about Modo sors lusori favet, modo adversario favet.
What does modo ... modo mean here?
In this sentence, modo ... modo shows alternation: now ... now, at one time ... at another, or more naturally in English, sometimes ... sometimes.
So the idea is that fortune does not stay on one side; it shifts back and forth.
It is important not to take modo here as only or just now. Because it appears twice, it forms a set expression.
Why are lusori and adversario not in the accusative?
Because favere does not take a direct object in Latin. It takes the dative case.
So:
- lusori = to the player
- adversario = to the opponent
A native English speaker often expects favor someone, with a direct object. Latin instead thinks in terms of show favor to someone.
What case are lusori and adversario?
Both are dative singular.
- lusori comes from lusor, lusoris = player
- adversario comes from adversarius, adversarii = opponent/adversary
They are in the dative because of the verb favet.
What form is favet?
Favet is:
- 3rd person singular
- present tense
- active voice
- indicative mood
It comes from faveo, favere = to favor.
So favet means he/she/it favors.
Here the subject is sors, so it means fortune/chance favors.
Why is favet singular?
Because the subject is sors, which is singular.
- sors = lot, fate, fortune, chance
- It is a singular noun
- Therefore the verb must also be singular: favet
Even though there are two people involved, they are not the subject. They are the ones receiving favor, so they are in the dative.
What case is sors, and why?
Sors is nominative singular, because it is the subject of the verb.
In other words, sors is the thing doing the favoring:
- sors favet = fortune favors
This noun belongs to the third declension:
- nominative: sors
- genitive: sortis
Is something missing in the second half of the sentence?
Yes, but only something that Latin can easily leave understood.
The full idea is:
- modo sors lusori favet
- modo sors adversario favet
In the second clause, sors is omitted because it is already obvious from the first clause. Latin often leaves out repeated words when the meaning is clear.
So the second half still means now fortune favors the opponent.
Why is the word order different from English?
Latin word order is more flexible than English because the endings show each word’s job in the sentence.
A very literal arrangement here is:
- modo = now / sometimes
- sors = fortune
- lusori = to the player
- favet = favors
English usually wants a more fixed order, but Latin can move words around for rhythm, emphasis, or style.
Here the repeated modo at the beginning of each clause nicely highlights the back-and-forth pattern.
Could adversario be an adjective instead of a noun?
The word adversarius can be either:
- an adjective, meaning opposed or hostile
- or a noun, meaning opponent/adversary
Here it is being used as a noun: adversario = to the opponent.
This is very common in Latin. An adjective can become a noun when the context makes the person or thing clear.
Why doesn’t Latin use a word like et between the two clauses?
Because the repeated modo ... modo already links the two parts strongly enough.
It creates a balanced pattern by itself:
- modo ...
- modo ...
That pattern expresses contrast and alternation, so no extra connecting word is necessary.
What is the basic grammatical structure of the whole sentence?
It consists of two parallel clauses:
- modo sors lusori favet
- modo adversario favet
More fully, the second clause is understood as:
- modo sors adversario favet
So the structure is:
- modo
- subject + dative + verb
- modo
- understood subject + dative + verb
This parallelism is one of the reasons the sentence sounds neat and balanced in Latin.
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