Breakdown of Matri nihil refert utrum infans lac an aquam bibat, dummodo satis bibat.
Questions & Answers about Matri nihil refert utrum infans lac an aquam bibat, dummodo satis bibat.
Why is matri in the dative?
Because Latin commonly uses the dative with expressions like refert to show to whom something matters.
So:
- matri = to the mother / for the mother
- nihil refert = it matters not at all / it makes no difference
Literally, the first part is something like:
- To the mother it matters nothing...
This is more natural Latin than trying to make mater the subject.
How does nihil refert work? Why doesn’t it literally mean nothing carries back?
Although referre can mean to bring back or to report in other contexts, in this idiom refert means it matters or it makes a difference.
So:
- quid refert? = what does it matter?
- nihil refert = it matters not at all
- multum refert = it matters a great deal
This is a fixed idiomatic use, and learners usually just need to memorize it as such.
Why do we get utrum ... an ... here?
utrum ... an ... is the standard way to introduce an indirect question meaning whether ... or ...
So:
- utrum infans lac an aquam bibat = whether the baby drinks milk or water
This is not just a simple or joining two nouns. It sets up two alternatives inside a clause:
- utrum = whether
- an = or
Latin often uses utrum ... an ... where English uses whether ... or ...
Why is bibat in the subjunctive after utrum?
Because utrum ... an ... here introduces an indirect question, and indirect questions in Latin normally take the subjunctive.
So in:
- utrum infans lac an aquam bibat
the verb bibat is subjunctive because the whole clause depends on refert:
- It makes no difference whether the baby drinks milk or water
This is a very common rule in Latin:
- direct question: infansne lac bibit? = Is the baby drinking milk?
- indirect question: rogat utrum infans lac bibat = He asks whether the baby is drinking milk
Why is there only one bibat in utrum infans lac an aquam bibat? Doesn’t it mean drinks milk or drinks water?
Yes, that is what it means, but Latin often uses one verb for both alternatives when the same verb applies to both.
So:
- utrum infans lac an aquam bibat
means:
- whether the baby drinks milk or water
- literally, whether the baby drinks milk or water-drinks
English does the same thing:
- I don’t know whether he bought bread or wine
We do not need to repeat bought after both nouns.
Why is lac just lac, but aquam has an ending?
Because the two nouns belong to different declensions and have different accusative forms.
Here both lac and aquam are objects of bibat, so both are accusative.
- lac is a neuter third-declension noun, and its nominative and accusative singular are the same: lac
- aqua is a first-declension feminine noun, whose accusative singular is aquam
So:
- lac = accusative singular
- aquam = accusative singular
This is a very common thing in Latin: neuter nouns often have the same form in nominative and accusative.
What case is infans, and how do we know it is the subject?
Infans is nominative singular here, and it is the subject of bibat.
So the structure is:
- infans = subject
- lac / aquam = direct object
- bibat = verb
Even though infans can have the same form in nominative and accusative singular, the sentence structure and meaning make it clear that it is the subject:
- whether the baby drinks milk or water
not
- whether milk or water drinks the baby
What exactly does dummodo mean here?
Dummodo means provided that, so long as, or as long as only.
So:
- dummodo satis bibat = provided that he/she drinks enough
It introduces a condition, but not the ordinary kind you see with si. It often has the sense of I don’t care about the other details, as long as this condition is met.
That fits the whole sentence very well:
- It makes no difference to the mother whether the baby drinks milk or water, provided that the baby drinks enough.
Why is bibat also subjunctive after dummodo?
Because dummodo regularly takes the subjunctive.
So:
- dummodo ... bibat = provided that ... drinks
This is another construction that learners usually memorize as a pattern:
- dummodo
- subjunctive = provided that / so long as
The subjunctive here does not mean doubt in the English sense; it is simply the normal Latin grammar after dummodo.
Why is bibat present subjunctive and not some other tense?
The present subjunctive fits the general, ongoing sense of the statement.
The sentence is not talking about one specific past event. It means something like:
- It does not matter whether the baby drinks milk or water, as long as the baby drinks enough
That is a general present idea, so the present subjunctive is natural in both subordinate clauses:
- utrum ... bibat
- dummodo ... bibat
What does satis mean, and what is it modifying?
Satis means enough or sufficiently.
Here it goes with bibat:
- satis bibat = drinks enough
English can say either:
- drinks enough
- drinks sufficiently
Latin satis is very common in this kind of expression.
Could Latin have used aut or vel instead of an?
Not in the same way.
In utrum ... an ..., an is the normal partner of utrum in a whether ... or ... construction.
So:
- utrum ... an ... = whether ... or ...
By contrast:
- aut and vel are ordinary coordinating words for or
- they do not normally replace an in this indirect-question pattern
So a learner should recognize utrum ... an ... as a special set phrase.
Why is the sentence ordered this way? Could the words be rearranged?
Yes, Latin word order is flexible, but this order is natural and clear.
The sentence begins with matri, which highlights the person whose point of view matters:
- To the mother, it makes no difference...
Then comes the impersonal expression:
- nihil refert
Then the indirect question:
- utrum infans lac an aquam bibat
And finally the condition:
- dummodo satis bibat
So the order helps the sentence unfold logically:
- whose concern?
- what is the judgment?
- between what alternatives?
- under what condition?
Latin could rearrange these elements, but this version is elegant and easy to follow.
Does infans mean baby, and does it imply a particular gender?
Infans literally means infant, baby, or young child.
Grammatically, it is a common-gender noun: it can refer to a male or female child depending on context. The sentence does not specify sex.
That is why English translations may say:
- the baby
- the infant
- he/she
The Latin itself stays neutral about that detail.
Is the repeated bibat awkward? Why not avoid it?
It is not awkward in Latin. In fact, the repetition is helpful because the two clauses are doing different jobs:
- utrum ... bibat = indirect question
- dummodo ... bibat = condition/proviso
The first bibat asks about the kind of drink. The second bibat states the important requirement.
So the repetition actually reinforces the meaning:
- the type of drink does not matter
- the amount drunk does matter
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