Questions & Answers about Βασίζομαι αρκετά στη φίλη μου, της οποίας τα ελληνικά είναι καλύτερα από τα δικά μου.
Why is βασίζομαι used here? Is it a passive form?
Yes, βασίζομαι is morphologically a middle/passive form, but here it has an active meaning: I rely / I depend.
So in this sentence:
- βασίζομαι = I rely
- not I am relied on
This is very common in Greek: some verbs appear in middle/passive forms but are translated actively in English.
Also compare:
- βασίζω κάτι σε κάτι = I base something on something
- βασίζομαι σε κάτι/κάποιον = I rely on something/someone
So the sentence uses the correct verb for rely on.
Why do we say στη φίλη μου after βασίζομαι?
Because βασίζομαι normally takes σε + accusative, meaning on.
Here:
- σε = on
- τη φίλη μου = my friend (accusative feminine singular)
These combine into the contracted form:
- σε τη φίλη μου → στη φίλη μου
So:
- βασίζομαι στη φίλη μου = I rely on my friend
This contraction is very common:
- σε τον → στον
- σε τη / την → στη / στην
- σε το → στο
- σε τους → στους
What does αρκετά mean here?
Here αρκετά is an adverb modifying βασίζομαι.
In this sentence it means something like:
- quite a bit
- fairly much
- to a considerable extent
So βασίζομαι αρκετά means I rely quite a lot.
A useful point: αρκετά can mean slightly different things depending on context:
- αρκετός / αρκετή / αρκετό = enough; quite a lot as an adjective
- αρκετά = enough; quite; fairly; rather as an adverb
Here it is adverbial.
Why is it η φίλη μου / στη φίλη μου and not μου φίλη?
In normal Modern Greek, the weak possessive forms like μου, σου, του, της usually come after the noun:
- η φίλη μου = my friend
- τα ελληνικά μου = my Greek
Putting μου before the noun is generally not the normal everyday pattern.
If you want emphasis or contrast, Greek often uses δικός instead:
- η δική μου φίλη = my friend (with emphasis, like my own friend or my friend, not someone else’s)
So στη φίλη μου is the ordinary, natural wording.
What exactly does της οποίας mean?
της οποίας means whose or more literally of whom.
It comes from the relative pronoun ο οποίος, η οποία, το οποίο.
Here the antecedent is η φίλη μου (my friend), which is:
- feminine
- singular
And inside the relative clause, the idea is possession:
- her Greek
- literally the Greek of whom
So Greek uses the genitive feminine singular form:
- της οποίας
That is why the sentence says:
- της οποίας τα ελληνικά...
- literally: whose Greek...
Why is της οποίας in the genitive?
Because it expresses possession.
In the relative clause, τα ελληνικά belong to the friend:
- her Greek
- the Greek of my friend
Greek often expresses whose by using a genitive relative pronoun. So:
- η φίλη = the friend
- της οποίας = whose / of whom
A useful way to think about it:
- η φίλη μου = the friend
- τα ελληνικά της φίλης μου = my friend’s Greek
- η φίλη μου, της οποίας τα ελληνικά... = my friend, whose Greek...
So the genitive is there because the friend is the possessor.
Is της οποίας formal? How would this sound in more everyday Greek?
Yes, της οποίας is a bit more formal or written-style. It is perfectly correct, but in everyday speech many people would more often say something like:
- Βασίζομαι αρκετά στη φίλη μου, που τα ελληνικά της είναι καλύτερα από τα δικά μου.
That version uses:
- που = a very common general relative word
- τα ελληνικά της = her Greek
Both are correct. The version with της οποίας sounds more polished or formal.
Why is τα ελληνικά plural when it means Greek?
In Greek, names of languages are often expressed as neuter plural forms.
So:
- τα ελληνικά = Greek
- τα αγγλικά = English
- τα γαλλικά = French
Even though English uses a singular noun like Greek, Greek often uses this plural form.
So in the sentence:
- τα ελληνικά είναι καλύτερα...
- literally: the Greek [language skills / Greek things] are better...
But in normal English, you simply translate it as her Greek is better.
Why is it καλύτερα and not another form like καλύτερο?
Because καλύτερα agrees with τα ελληνικά, which is neuter plural.
The comparative adjective is:
- καλύτερος (masculine)
- καλύτερη (feminine)
- καλύτερο (neuter singular)
- καλύτερα (neuter plural)
Since the subject here is:
- τα ελληνικά = neuter plural
the adjective must also be neuter plural:
- τα ελληνικά είναι καλύτερα
So καλύτερα here is an adjective agreeing with ελληνικά, not just an adverb.
What does τα δικά μου mean, and why not just μου?
τα δικά μου means mine or more literally my own ones.
It refers back to the omitted noun ελληνικά:
- τα ελληνικά της είναι καλύτερα από τα δικά μου
- her Greek is better than mine
Greek often uses δικός, δική, δικό when the possessed noun is omitted and English would use mine, yours, his, hers, etc.
So:
- τα δικά μου = my ones / mine
- here specifically: my Greek
Why neuter plural?
Because the missing noun is τα ελληνικά, which is neuter plural. So the possessive form matches it:
- τα δικά μου [ελληνικά]
Why is there an article in τα δικά μου?
Because δικός behaves like an adjective, and Greek normally uses it with the definite article in this kind of possessive structure:
- ο δικός μου
- η δική μου
- το δικό μου
- τα δικά μου
So:
- τα δικά μου = mine
This is different from the weak possessive clitics like μου used directly after a noun:
- η φίλη μου = my friend
- τα ελληνικά μου = my Greek
But when Greek wants the stronger possessive idea mine/yours/his/hers, it commonly uses article + δικός + pronoun.
Why is there a comma before της οποίας?
The comma shows that the relative clause is adding extra information about η φίλη μου, not identifying which friend.
So the structure is like English:
- my friend, whose Greek is better than mine
This is a non-restrictive relative clause. It gives additional information.
Without that kind of pause, the sentence would feel structurally different. The comma helps show that της οποίας τα ελληνικά είναι καλύτερα από τα δικά μου is a side comment about the friend already mentioned.
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